Hi, I have an invoice to pay a seller for a couple of items. I have asked if they will combine postage, which they have agreed to. My issue is that the new postage amount is greater than the sum of both individual postage costs. When I queried this with the seller, they said that the higher postage fee was being applied because they felt that they didn't cover their costs sufficiently on the sale of the two items!
Is this correct? my thoughts are that if the item is being auctioned and it sells, how can a seller then decide to add a more expensive postage option (as the only option) because they felt that it didn't sell for what they hoped for?
Any feedback? Cheers.
