Hi there Annie, I think you miss my point, the SAME seller is selling two IDENTICAL items, one by auction one by buy it now. They appear to be trying to make the auction price up by charging more for the postage on that item. I just think its wrong, no one should not charge the correct postage but to over charge is wrong in my book.

Appear being thge operative word - as has been pointed out, you're assuming that because the $2.99 P&H quote is lower, that's what it's going to cost to post. Why?

I do exactly the same thing, by the way, with items that use 3kg satchels (which cost me around $11 to post). When they're BIN, I prefer to quote under $10 for postage so I subsidise the BIN price with the rest (I guess you could say I'm 'overcharging' the item price). If I send the item to auction, I charge actual P&H price so that not only are my costs are covered but it doesn't cost me more to sell the item at a lower price (which is always a lower total price, just like this seller's).

While I do not advocate nor practice postage piracy, the way I look at it is this - no seller makes profit on postage. They make profit on the items they sell - sometimes that profit is all in column A, sometimes there's a little in column B. I get why people don't like or appreciate when some of it is in column B, but I think part of the problem is that if you buy something for $5 + $10 P&H, even if it's an item that reatails for $50, and it arrives in an envelope with $1.20 stamps, people start thinking they should have paid $5 + $1.20 post, which would never happen no matter which way the seller divided their costs & profits.